An inequality $ k\frac{\sum_{i\neq j} x_i x_j ( (1-x_i-x_j)^{k-1}- (1-x_i)^k(1-x_j)^k)}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i (1-(1-x_i)^k)} \leq 2$

inequality

Let $x_1,\dots, x_n \geq 0$ be a sequence of numbers such that $\sum_{i=1}^n x_i = 1$. For every $k \geq 1$, I conjecture (and need to prove) that
$$
\frac{\sum_{1\leq i\neq j\leq n} x_i x_j \left( (1-x_i-x_j)^{k-1}- (1-x_i)^k(1-x_j)^k\right)}{\sum_{i=1}^n x_i \left(1-(1-x_i)^k\right)} \leq \frac{C}{k}
$$

where $C>0$ is some absolute constant, which I suspect can be taken to be $C=2$.

I don't really know how to handle this elegantly, or even how to handle it at all. I'd be happy with any proof, but a short one would be appreciated. It's one of these statements which seems to scream for a nice "convexity" or "symmetry" or other "beautiful rabbit out of hat" argument, but any proof at all (or counterexample — though that'd be quite annoying) would be appreciated.

The "natural" case where all $x_i$ are either 0 or some value $1/m$ (i.e., $x_1=\dots=x_m=1/m$, and $x_{m+1}=\dots=x_n=0$) has an upper bound with a closed form
$$
k\frac{(1-\frac{2}{m})^{k-1}-(1-\frac{1}{m})^{2k}}{1-(1-\frac{1}{m})^k} \leq 2
$$

which supports the conjecture. I suspect this is the worst case, but am not sure how to formally argue it.

Best Answer

If you don't care about the constant, the inequality is rather simple. For all practical purposes (i.e., up to an absolute constant factor) $1-(1-x_i)^k\asymp\min(kx_i,1)=y_i$. Also, we trivially have $\sum_i y_i\le k\sum_i x_i=k$. Now we note that $(1-x_i-x_j)^{k-1}-(1-x_i)^{k-1}(1-x_j)^{k-1}\le 0$ (just because $1-x_i-x_j\le(1-x_i)(1-x_j)$). Thus it suffices to prove that $$ \sum_{i,j}x_ix_j[1-(1-x_i)(1-x_j)](1-x_i)^{k-1}(1-x_j)^{k-1}\le \frac Ck\sum_i x_iy_i\,. $$ Now,$1-(1-x_i)(1-x_j)\le x_i+x_j$ and $x_i(1-x_i)^{k-1}\le\min(x_i,\frac 1k)=\frac 1ky_i$, so the LHS is bounded by $$ \frac 1{k^2}\sum_{i,j}(x_i+x_j)y_iy_j=\frac 2{k^2}\sum_{i,j}x_iy_iy_j \\ =\frac 2{k^2}\left[\sum_{i}x_iy_i\right]\left[\sum_{j}y_j\right]\le \frac 2{k^2}\left[\sum_{i}x_iy_i\right]k= \frac 2k\sum_{i}x_iy_i $$ and we are done.

This crude computation doesn't yield $C=2$ though. To get $C=2$ in this way, you just want to define $y_i=1-(1-x_i)^k$ (which is always $\le\min(kx_i,1)$, so the final computation is fine) and show that the inequality $kx_i(1-x_i)^{k-1}\le y_i$ still holds. This is also easy once you realize that $1-(1-x)^k=\int_0^x k(1-t)^{k-1}\,dt$ and you can now rewrite the above argument with this slick definition in the same way, but, of course, that is not how one would guess it in the first place, so I included the crude computation based on the simple idea to replace hard functions with equivalent simple ones :-)

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