Here's what I'm trying to prove:
Let $\Delta$ be an inconsistent set of formulas. Then, for any formula $\psi$, $\Delta \vdash \psi$.
Proof Attempt:
We have previously shown that $\{(\alpha \land \beta) \} \vdash \alpha$. Let $\psi$ be any formula. Since $\Delta$ is inconsistent, it follows that:
$$\Delta \vdash (\lnot(\psi \to \psi))$$
However, $(\lnot(\psi \to \psi))$ is just $(\psi \land (\lnot \psi))$. Then, there is a deduction from $(\psi \land (\lnot \psi))$ to $\psi$. Hence, there is a deduction from $\Delta$ to $\psi$ and that is what we wanted to show. $\Box$
Does the argument above work? If it doesn't, then why? How can I fix it?
Would there be any alternative argument that doesn't actually rely on the fact that I proved previously?
Best Answer
We assume as axioms those of the linked proof system.
With Ax.1 and Ax.2 we can prove (many copy of the proof on this site): $\vdash (\alpha \to \alpha)$.
Using the following instance of Ax.1:
and the previous result we have:
Using the following instance of Ax.1:
we have:
Using the following instance of Ax.3:
we have, form (1) and (2) by MP:
Thus, if $\text {Incons}(\Delta)$ is defined as: $\Delta \vdash ¬(α → α)$ for any formula $α$, using (3) above we have: