Solved – Trouble understanding sample spaces in Bayes Theorem

bayesianprobability

I wanted to check my understanding of what's going on in the problem below, which employs Bayes' Theorem.

sample problem using Bayes' Theorem

I would like to understand what's going on with respect to the sample space $\Omega$. It seems like we can only apply rules like Bayes' Theorem when $H$ and $D$ are events "from" the same sample space $\Omega$. But aren't $H$ and $D$ fundamentally different things here, i.e. don't they belong to different sample spaces?

Couldn't one say that we have two sample spaces $\Omega_1$ and $\Omega_2$ where $\Omega_1 = \{D, \bar{D}\}$, i.e. the set containing outcomes test positive and test negative (denoted $\bar{D}$) and $\Omega_2 = \{H, \bar{H}\}$, i.e. the set containing outcomes disease and no disease?

Thus, how are events $H$ and $D$ from the same sample space?

Apologies if this question is overly rudimentary. I'm just so used to applying Bayes' Thereom without fully understanding it. Thanks for taking the time to read my question!

Best Answer

The whole purpose of the sample space is that it must encompass all possible outcomes in the problem, so that every "event" in the problem is some subset of the sample space. If the sample space does not do this, then it fails to meet the basic requirements of what it is supposed to do in the context of the problem.

Now, under your approach you posit that you could have two "sample spaces" that each describe a different aspect of the problem. The proposed sets $\{ D, \bar{D} \}$ and $\{ H, \bar{H} \}$ are not actually sets of outcomes - they are classes of events. If you want your problem to involve all these events then they would need to be subsets of outcomes on the same set (i.e., you would require $\Omega = D \cap \bar{D} = H \cap \bar{H}$). You would then define the sigma-field of events induced by the set $\{ D, H \}$, and this would include all combinations of the two events of interest in your problem.

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