Chi-Square Distribution – Proving Squares of Normal RVs

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I start with three independent random variables, $X_1, X_2, X_3$. They are each normally distributed with:

$$X_i \sim N(\mu_i, \sigma^2), i = 1, 2, 3.$$

I then have three transformations,

$$\eqalign{
Y_1 &= -X_1/\sqrt{2} + X_2/\sqrt{2} \cr
Y_2 &= -X_1/\sqrt{3} – X_2/\sqrt{3} + X_3/\sqrt{3} \cr
Y_3 &= X_1/\sqrt{6} + X_2/\sqrt{6} + 2X_3 / \sqrt{6} \cr
}$$

I am supposed to show that when $\mu_i = 0,$ $i = 1, 2, 3,$ $(Y_1^2 + Y_2^2 + Y_3^2)/\sigma^2 \sim \chi^2(3)$. I have also shown the transformations to preserve the independence, as the transformation matrix is orthogonal.

I have already shown that the expectations of $Y_1, Y_2, Y_3$ is 0 and their variances are all the same. Using the normal pdf, I have shown that:

$$Y_i^2 \sim \frac{1}{2\pi\sigma^2} \exp(-2x^2 / 2\sigma^2).$$

I thought about applying a substitution of $z = 2x^2 / \sigma^2$ to get the exponent into a similar form as the chi-square's $\exp(-x/2)$ form, but I'm stuck on what to do with the constants outside to get them to look similar. Could someone offer a hand?

Best Answer

We have $X_1\sim N(\mu_1,\sigma^2)$ and $X_2\sim N(\mu_2,\sigma^2)$, hence

$$EY_1=E(-X_1/\sqrt{2}+X_2/\sqrt{2})=-1/\sqrt{2}EX_1+1/\sqrt{2}EX_2=0$$

\begin{align*} EY_1^2&=E(-X_1/\sqrt{2}+X_2/\sqrt{2})^2\\\\ &=E(X_1/\sqrt{2})^2-2E(X_1X_2/2)+E(X_2/\sqrt{2})^2\\\\ &=1/2\sigma^2+1/2\sigma^2=\sigma^2 \end{align*}

Hence $Y_1\sim N(0,\sigma^2)$ since it is the linear combination of normal variables.

Similarly we get $Y_2\sim N(0,\sigma^2)$ and $Y_3\sim N(0,\sigma^2)$

Now

$$EY_1Y_2=1/\sqrt{6}E(X_1)^2-1/\sqrt{6}EX_2^2=0$$

and similarly $EY_2Y_3=EY_1Y_3=0$, hence $Y_1$, $Y_2$ and $Y_3$ are independent, since for normal variables independece coincided with zero correlation.

Having established that we have

$$(Y_1^2+Y_2^2+Y_3^2)/\sigma^2=\left(\frac{Y_1}{\sigma}\right)^2+\left(\frac{Y_2}{\sigma}\right)^2+\left(\frac{Y_3}{\sigma}\right)^2=Z_1^2+Z_2^2+Z_3^2$$,

where $Z_i=Y_i/\sigma$. Since $Y_i\sim N(0,\sigma^2)$, we have $Z_i\sim N(0,1)$.

We have showed that our quantity of interest is a sum of squares of 3 independent standard normal variables, which by definition is $\chi^2$ with 3 degrees of freedom.

As I've said in the comments you do not need to calculate the densities. If you on the other hand want to do that, your formula is wrong. Here is why. Denote by $G(x)$ distribution of $Y_1^2$ and $F(x)$ the distribution of $Y_1$. Then we have

$$G(x)=P(Y_1^2<x)=P(-\sqrt{x}<Y_1<\sqrt{x})=F(\sqrt{x})-F(-\sqrt{x})$$

Now the density of $Y_1^2$ is $G'(x)$, so

$$G'(x)=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}(F'(\sqrt{x})+F'(-\sqrt{x})$$

We have that

$$F'(x)=\frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{x^2}{\sigma^2}},$$

so

$$G'(x)=\frac{1}{\sigma\sqrt{2\pi x}}e^{-\frac{x}{2}}$$

If $\sigma^2=1$ we have a pdf of $\chi^2$ with one degree of freedom. (Note that for $Z_1$ instead of $Y_1$ the calculation is similar and $\sigma^2=1$ ) As @whuber pointed out, this is gamma distribution, and sums of independent gamma distributions is again gamma, the exact formula is provided in the wikipedia page.

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