Solved – Proving $\Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\sqrt\pi$ using the expected value of standard normal variable

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I'm looking to prove that $\Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\sqrt\pi$ using the fact that $E(Z^2)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{\frac{-z^2}{2}} z^2\, dz$ (where $Z$ is a standard normal variable), using the fact that $\Gamma(r)=\int_{0}^{\infty}y^{r-1}e^{-y}\,dy$.

The way I've gone about this is to allow $y={\frac{z^2}{2}}$ and so $z=\sqrt{2y}; dz=\frac{dz}{\sqrt{2y}}$.

Substituting these in I eventually get that $E(Z^2)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}}e^{-y} \sqrt{y} \,dy = 1$, but I don't know how to bridge the gap here to $\gamma(r)=\int_{0}^{\infty}y^{r-1}e^{-y}\,dy$.

Given that it's $\Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)$, shouldn't I'm not sure how to use this in the $E(Z^2)$ equation as it's $y^{r-1}$.

Hope this was clear. Thank you!

Best Answer

Notice first

\begin{eqnarray} \Gamma(1/2) &=& \int_{0}^{\infty}y^{-1/2}e^{-y}dy \\ &=& \int_{0}^{\infty} \sqrt{2}z^{-1} e^{-z^2/2} z \ d z \qquad \text{ (substitute $y=\frac{z^2}{2}$ )} \\ &=& \frac{1}{2} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \sqrt{2} e^{-z^2/2} \ d z \qquad \text{ (since even function)} \\ &=& \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} z^2 e^{-z^2/2} \ d z \qquad \text{ (*using integration by parts)} \\ \end{eqnarray}

The last line (integration by parts) is valid as

\begin{eqnarray} \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}z^{2}\left(e^{-z^2/2}\right)dz &=&\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}z\left(ze^{-z^2/2}\right)dz \\ &=& \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}z\left(-e^{-z^2/2}\right)'dz \\ &=& \underbrace{-ze^{-z^2/2}\Bigg|^{+\infty}_{-\infty}}_{=0}+\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}\left(e^{-z^2/2}\right)dz\\ \end{eqnarray}

Hence we can easily see

$$\Gamma(1/2) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}} \mathbb{E}[Z^2] $$

hence

$$\Gamma(1/2) = \sqrt{\pi} \text{ □ }$$


Addition: To be clear, below I am answering exactly the question user @Sarina asked. My answer is based on a result he assumes (that the variance of the standard normal equals 1). The answer would be more complete by proving that this is the case (that involves a simple change from Cartesian to polar coordinates) but I feel this is not what user @Sarina wanted to know

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