I have three questions regarding a regression equation where the dependent is log transformed, a dummy $D$ is interacted with yer dummies, and other independent variables are present on the right hand side: $\newcommand{\year}{{\rm year}}$
$${\rm ln}(Y) = \alpha + \beta_{0}.D + \beta_{1}.\year1990 + \beta_{2}.\year1995 + \beta_{3}.\year2000 + \beta_{4}.D.\year1990 + \beta_{5}.D.\year1995 + \beta_{6}.D.\year2000 + \beta_{7}.X + {\rm error}$$
- How can I get the average effect of $D$ from this regression?
- Am I right to think that the coefficient of dummy + coefficient of dummy year interaction (say for 2000) gives the percent difference relative to the same coefficients for the year dummy omitted omitted due to collinearity?
- What would be the most meaningful interpretation of this regression?
Best Answer
1) The average impact of D on Y is \begin{equation} \beta_{0} +mean(0,\beta_{4},\beta_{5},\beta_{6})\end{equation}
You might want to weight the mean by the frequency with which the years appear in your dataset
2) $ \beta_{0}$ is the impact of D on $Ln(Y)$ in the omitted year. Therefore, $ \beta_{6}$ On it's own is the relative percentage impact D being 1 has on Y, when compared to the omitted year. I.e. if $ \beta_{6}$ =0.1. Then D being equal to 1 had 10 (exp(0.1)*100) percentage point greater impact on Y in 2000.
3)It depends on what your coefficients are and what D and Y stand for!