In a logistic Generalized Linear Mixed Model (family = binomial), I don't know how to interpret the random effects variance:
Random effects:
Groups Name Variance Std.Dev.
HOSPITAL (Intercept) 0.4295 0.6554
Number of obs: 2275, groups: HOSPITAL, 14
How do I interpret this numerical result?
I have a sample of renal trasplanted patients in a multicenter study. I was testing if the probability of a patient being treated with a specific antihypertensive treatment is the same among centers. The proportion of patients treated varies greatly between centers, but may be due to differences in basal characteristics of the patients. So I estimated a generalized linear mixed model (logistic), adjusting for the principal features of the patiens.
This are the results:
Generalized linear mixed model fit by maximum likelihood ['glmerMod']
Family: binomial ( logit )
Formula: HTATTO ~ AGE + SEX + BMI + INMUNOTTO + log(SCR) + log(PROTEINUR) + (1 | CENTER)
Data: DATOS
AIC BIC logLik deviance
1815.888 1867.456 -898.944 1797.888
Random effects:
Groups Name Variance Std.Dev.
CENTER (Intercept) 0.4295 0.6554
Number of obs: 2275, groups: HOSPITAL, 14
Fixed effects:
Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(>|z|)
(Intercept) -1.804469 0.216661 -8.329 < 2e-16 ***
AGE -0.007282 0.004773 -1.526 0.12712
SEXFemale -0.127849 0.134732 -0.949 0.34267
BMI 0.015358 0.014521 1.058 0.29021
INMUNOTTOB 0.031134 0.142988 0.218 0.82763
INMUNOTTOC -0.152468 0.317454 -0.480 0.63102
log(SCR) 0.001744 0.195482 0.009 0.99288
log(PROTEINUR) 0.253084 0.088111 2.872 0.00407 **
The quantitative variables are centered.
I know that the among-hospital standard deviation of the intercept is 0.6554, in log-odds scale.
Because the intercept is -1.804469, in log-odds scale, then probability of being treated with the antihypertensive of a man, of average age, with average value in all variables and inmuno treatment A, for an "average" center, is 14.1 %.
And now begins the interpretation: under the assumption that the random effects follow a normal distribution, we would expect approximately 95% of centers to have a value within 2 standard deviations of the mean of zero, so the probability of being treated for the average man will vary between centers with coverage interval of:
exp(-1.804469-2*0.6554)/(1+exp(-1.804469-2*0.6554))
exp(-1.804469+2*0.6554)/(1+exp(-1.804469+2*0.6554))
Is this correct?
Also, how can I test in glmer if the variability between centers is statistically significant?
I used to work with MIXNO, an excellent software of Donald Hedeker, and there I have an standard error of the estimate variance, that I don't have in glmer.
How can I have the probability of being treated for the "average" man in each center, with a confidene interval?
Thanks
Best Answer
It's probably most helpful if you show us more information about your model, but: the baseline value of the log-odds of whatever your response is (e.g. mortality) varies across hospitals. The baseline value (the per-hospital intercept term) is the log-odds of mortality (or whatever) in the baseline category (e.g. "untreated"), at a zero value of any continuous predictors. That variation is assumed to be Normally distributed, on the log-odds scale. The among-hospital standard deviation of the intercept is 0.6554; the variance (just the standard deviation squared -- not a measure of the uncertainty of the standard deviation) is $0.6554^2=0.4295$.
(If you clarify your question/add more detail about your model I can try to say more.)
update: your interpretation of the variation seems correct. More precisely,
should give you the 95% interval (not really quite confidence intervals, but very similar) for the probabilities of a baseline (male/average age/etc.) individual getting treated across hospitals.
For testing the significance of the random effect, you have a variety of choices (see http://bbolker.github.io/mixedmodels-misc/glmmFAQ.html for more information). (Note that the standard error of a RE variance is usually not a reliable way to test significance, since the sampling distribution is often skewed/non-Normal.) The simplest approach is to do a likelihood ratio test, e.g.
The final division by 2 corrects for the fact that the likelihood ratio test is conservative when the null value (i.e. RE variance=0) is on the boundary of the feasible space (i.e. the RE variance cannot be <0).