Interpreting ARIMA(0,0,0) – Understanding Simple Time Series Models

arimaforecastingrregressiontime series

I have an auto.arima model output with ARIMA(0,0,0) with zero mean does this indicate that the model did not fit well? Is it the case that the extra regressors have eclipsed the effect of the time and difference components? If it is valid, I do not know how to interpret the results to communicate to others why the zeroes are okay.

Series: y 
ARIMA(0,0,0) with zero mean     

Coefficients:
      dowSunday  dowMonday  dowTuesday  dowWednesday  dowThursday  dowFriday  dowSaturday  daypartM  daypartA
         0.1427     0.1425      0.0912        0.0312       0.0136     0.1195       0.0841    0.1051    0.1275
s.e.     0.1399     0.2124      0.2120        0.1528       0.2013     0.2357       0.2375    0.1285    0.0451
      daypartE  daypartLN  inv_last24  regionSouth  regionNorth Central
        0.1697     0.0334      0.0240      -0.0234               -0.100
s.e.    0.0968     0.0736      0.1085       0.0464                0.049

sigma^2 estimated as 0.007612:  log likelihood=31.9
AIC=-33.8   AICc=206.2   BIC=-20.44

Training set error measures:
                        ME       RMSE        MAE  MPE MAPE      MASE      ACF1
Training set -6.321953e-17 0.04112732 0.03184536 -Inf  Inf 0.3702166 0.2447627

Best Answer

An ARIMA(0,0,0) model with zero mean is white noise, so it means that the errors are uncorrelated across time.

This doesn't imply anything about the size of the errors, so no in general it is not an indication of good or bad fit.

In your case, you'll note that your $\sigma^2$ is 0.007612 and that ME is -6.321953e-17. These are very very small numbers, so yes, the model "fits" well.

However, the reason why they are very small is because you are fitting 15 parameters (14 coefficients + 1 error variance) to only 18 points.

You are likely overfitting the data to an extreme degree, and you will likely not be able to forecast out of sample very well.