For example, I have three variables: A, B, C.
I analysis the partial correlation between A and B while controlling C (expressed as A~B[C]), and the partial correlation between A and C while controlling B (expressed as A~C[B]).
The result shows that the correlation coefficient of A~B[C] is 0.67, p-value < 0.001, however, the p-value of A~C[B] also < 0.001, but the correlation coefficient is small, only 0.02.
Could I explain as: at a given variable C level, A is more possibly determined by B rather than C?
Best Answer
Keep in mind that the p-value depends on the sample size. I guess you have a large sample size thus both values are p < 0.001. My interpretation would be that A is correlated with B and less so with C. Try to compare the partial correlation results with the normal correlation between A and B/A and C.