If you assume that $X_1$ and $X_2$ have the same variance $\sigma^2$, namely that $\Sigma = \sigma^2\begin{pmatrix}
\;1 & \rho\\
\rho & \;1 \end{pmatrix}$, then you can see by diagonalizing $\Sigma$ that $x_1 := X_1+X_2$ and $x_2 :=X_1-X_2$ are independent with variances $2\sigma^2(1 \pm \rho)$ respectively.
Furthermore from the properties of the covariance of the sum we have: $$\text{svar}(X_1) + \text{svar}(X_2) = \frac{1}{2}(\text{svar}(x_1) + \text{svar}(x_2))$$
(I use $\text{svar}$ to distinguish sample variance from variance)
Therefore you can express $V_D$ and $V_p$ in term of the two independent variables $s_1^2 = \text{svar}(x_1)$, $s_2^2 =\text{svar}(x_2)$ such that
$$ V_D = s_2^2 , \quad V_p = \frac{1}{4}(s_1^2 + s_2^2) $$
Where by the well known distribution of the sample variance we know that
$$ \frac{n-1}{2\sigma^2(1+\rho)}s_1^2 \sim \chi^2_{n-1}, \quad \frac{n-1}{2\sigma^2(1-\rho)}s_2^2 \sim \chi^2_{n-1}$$
or equivalently $s_{1,2}^2 \sim \text{Gamma}((n-1)/2,4\sigma^2(1 \pm \rho)/(n-1))$.
Your desired ratio is $$ Z = 4\frac{s_2^2}{s_1^2 + s_2^2} $$
Notice that this implies that $0 \le Z \le 4$, So a $\chi^2$ approximation will probably not work very well (note also that when $\rho \to 1$ $s_2^2 \to 0$ so $Z$ becomes concentrated at 0, and likewise when $\rho \to -1$ $s_1^2 \to 0$ so $Z$ becomes concentrated at 4).
In fact the distribution of such a ratio of gamma variables is known in closed from and is given in this case by : (See e.g. here)
$$Z/4 \sim f(z)$$
$$f(z) = \frac{z^{k-1}(1-z)^{k-1}}{r^k B(k,k)} \left(1 + \frac{1-r}{r}z \right)^{-2k}, \quad 0 < z < 1.$$
Where $k = (n-1)/2$ , $r = \frac{1-\rho}{1+\rho}$ and $B(\cdotp ,\cdotp)$ is the Beta function.
Furthermore you can easily calculate the correlation between $V_D$ and $V_p$ :
$$\text{Cov}(V_D,V_p) = \text{Cov}( s_2^2 ,\frac{1}{4}(s_1^2 + s_2^2)) = \frac{1}{4} \text{var}(s_2^2) = \frac{2\sigma^4(1-\rho)^2}{n-1}$$
$$\text{var}(V_p) = \frac{1}{16} (\text{var}(s_1^2) + \text{var}(s_2^2))= \frac{\sigma^4(1+\rho^2)}{n-1}$$
$$\rho_{V_D,V_p} = \frac{\text{Cov}(V_D,V_p)}{\sqrt{\text{var}(V_D)\text{var}(V_p)}} = \frac{1-\rho}{\sqrt{2(1+\rho^2)}}$$
(Note that when $\rho=1/2$ you get exactly $1/2\sqrt{2*5/4)} = 1/\sqrt{10}$ )
Best Answer
This post elaborates on the answers in the comments to the question.
Let $X = (X_1, X_2, \ldots, X_n)$. Fix any $\mathbf{e}_1\in\mathbb{R}^n$ of unit length. Such a vector may always be completed to an orthonormal basis $(\mathbf{e}_1, \mathbf{e}_2, \ldots, \mathbf{e}_n)$ (by means of the Gram-Schmidt process, for instance). This change of basis (from the usual one) is orthogonal: it does not change lengths. Thus the distribution of
$$\frac{(\mathbf{e}_1\cdot X)^2}{||X||^2}=\frac{(\mathbf{e}_1\cdot X)^2}{X_1^2 + X_2^2 + \cdots + X_n^2} $$
does not depend on $\mathbf{e}_1$. Taking $\mathbf{e}_1 = (1,0,0,\ldots, 0)$ shows this has the same distribution as
$$\frac{X_1^2}{X_1^2 + X_2^2 + \cdots + X_n^2}.\tag{1} $$
Since the $X_i$ are iid Normal, they may be written as $\sigma$ times iid standard Normal variables $Y_1, \ldots, Y_n$ and their squares are $\sigma^2$ times $\Gamma(1/2)$ distributions. Since the sum of $n-1$ independent $\Gamma(1/2)$ distributions is $\Gamma((n-1)/2)$, we have determined that the distribution of $(1)$ is that of
$$\frac{\sigma^2 U}{\sigma^2 U + \sigma^2 V} = \frac{U}{U+V}$$
where $U = X_1^2/\sigma^2 \sim \Gamma(1/2)$ and $V = (X_2^2 + \cdots + X_n^2)/\sigma^2 \sim \Gamma((n-1)/2)$ are independent. It is well known that this ratio has a Beta$(1/2, (n-1)/2)$ distribution. (Also see the closely related thread at Distribution of $XY$ if $X \sim$ Beta$(1,K-1)$ and $Y \sim$ chi-squared with $2K$ degrees.)
Since $$X_1 + \cdots + X_n = (1,1,\ldots,1)\cdot (X_1, X_2, \cdots, X_n) = \sqrt{n}\,\mathbf{e}_1\cdot X$$
for the unit vector $\mathbf{e}_1=(1,1,\ldots,1)/\sqrt{n}$, we conclude that $Z$ is $(\sqrt{n})^2 = n$ times a Beta$(1/2, (n-1)/2)$ variate. For $n\ge 2$ it therefore has density function
$$f_Z(z) = \frac{n^{1-n/2}}{B\left(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{n-1}{2}\right)} \sqrt{\frac{(n-z)^{n-3}}{z}}$$
on the interval $(0,n)$ (and otherwise is zero).
As a check, I simulated $100,000$ independent realizations of $Z$ for $\sigma=1$ and $n=2,3,10$, plotted their histograms, and superimposed the graph of the corresponding Beta density (in red). The agreements are excellent.
Here is the
R
code. It carries out the simulation by means of the formulasum(x)^2 / sum(x^2)
for $Z$, wherex
is a vector of lengthn
generated byrnorm
. The rest is just looping (for
,apply
) and plotting (hist
,curve
).