Supposedly I toss a coin 1000 times a day for a period of 10 days. Each day the probability of head occurring on the coin changes. For instance – 670 times getting a head on day 1, 567 times getting a head on day 2 and so on. So each time, the probability of a head occuring isn't 0.5, so can someone please explain why we generalise that the probability of a head occuring on tossing of a coin is 0.5??
Probability Theory – How to Generalize Probability of ‘Head’ Occurring on a Coin
probability
Related Solutions
Person 2 seems to be confusing conditional probability of the next toss with the joint probability of the sequence. Denote the results of the $k$th coin toss by event $H_k$ that occurs iff the result is heads (otherwise, $\neg H_k$) Fairness of the coin is mathematically modeled by the following assumptions:
- $\mathbb{P}(H_k) = 0.5$ for all $k$.
- The events $H_1,H_2,\ldots$ are mutually independent.
As Avraham points out in his answer, these are assumptions. Whether these assumptions form a reasonable model of the real coin tossing process is a physical rather than mathematical question.
Person 2
Person 2 is computing the total probability that all 4 tosses are heads, \begin{equation} \mathbb{P}(H_1\cap H_2 \cap H_3 \cap H_4) \end{equation} applying the independence assumption, this equals \begin{equation} =\mathbb{P}(H_1)\mathbb{P}(H_2)\mathbb{P}(H_3)\mathbb{P}(H_4) \end{equation} and applying the first assumption, \begin{equation} = 0.5^4 = 0.0625. \end{equation} So, person 2 correctly computes the probability of obtaining a sequence of 4 heads. Unfortunately, that is not what they want to know.
Person 1
Person 1 understands that the question is about the probability of the next toss coming out heads, given the history of previous tosses \begin{equation} \mathbb{P}(H_4 \mid H_3\cap H_2\cap H_1) \end{equation} but, due to the independence assumption, this conditioning on the other events does not change the probability of $H_4$, thus the condition may simply be omitted: \begin{equation} =\mathbb{P}(H_4) = 0.5. \end{equation}
Thinking about the whole sequence
Person 2 was thinking about the sequence of all 4 tosses, while the question was worded in terms of the 4th toss. However, instead of considering the event of the next toss, person 1 could as well have computed the conditional probability of the whole sequence, conditional on what has already been observed \begin{equation} \mathbb{P}(H_4\cap H_3\cap H_2\cap H_1 \mid H_3 \cap H_2 \cap H_1) \end{equation} Here, one could apply Bayes' theorem or the definition of conditional probability: \begin{equation} =\frac{\mathbb{P}((H_4\cap H_3\cap H_2\cap H_1) \cap (H_3 \cap H_2 \cap H_1 ))}{\mathbb{P}(H_3 \cap H_2 \cap H_1)} = \frac{\mathbb{P}(H_4 \cap H_3 \cap H_2 \cap H_1)}{\mathbb{P}(H_3 \cap H_2 \cap H_1)} \end{equation} based on independence, this equals \begin{equation} =\frac{\mathbb{P}(H_4)\mathbb{P}(H_3)\mathbb{P}(H_2)\mathbb{P}(H_1)}{\mathbb{P}(H_3)\mathbb{P}(H_2)\mathbb{P}(H_1)} = \mathbb{P}(H_4) = 0.5. \end{equation} This second computation is unnecessarily complicated, as the computation 'Person 1' already gave the correct probability of the next toss. However, I think this could help convincing person 2 that one does not need to take the total sequence of 4 heads into account.
Solved – Probability of 2 players being dealt the same ‘hand’ (2 cards), texas holdem, head to head.
Based on @remy-jurriens answer, just corrected.
Player1 has a pair and Player2 has same pair,
p(pair_pair) = (3/51)(2/50)(1/49) = 6/(51*50*49)
Player1 has a non-pair and Player2 has same hand,
p(non_pairs) = (48/51)(6/50)(3/49) = 864/(51*50*49)
Chance to get same Texas Holdem hand Heads-Up:
p = p(pair_pair) + p(non_pairs) = (864+6)/(51*50*49) = 0.006962785114045618
or 0.7% - same result
Best Answer
In a straightforward 10 day experiment with 1000 tosses each day with a fair coin you might see the following numbers of Heads on the 10 days. [Sampling in R.]
If someone doesn't know you used a fair coin, then they might use the procedure
prop.test
to see whether the Heads probability each day might be $0.5.$The null hypothesis is that $p=P(\mathrm{Heads}) = 0.5$ each day, against the alternative hypothesis that $p \ne 0.5$ on one or more of the days. $H_0$ cannot be rejected because the P-value $0.892 > 0.05 = 5\%.$
Clearly, not all daily proportions of Heads are exactly $0.5,$ but the random variation (among observed proportions, $0.487$ to $0.524)$ is not more than would be expected by chance.
By contrast, if you got results as in the vector
y
below, then someone might wonder whether you used a fair coin each day.Then
prop.test
can be used to see if Heads probabilities are all the same (the default null hypothesis, in case nothing else is specified in the input).s prop.test(y, rep(1000,10))For this test, the P-value is very near $0$ so $H_0$ is rejected.
Notes: (1) Both versions of
prop.test
are roughly equivalent to chi-squared tests. You could use chi-squared tests if you like, but I find the output fromprop.test
to be more informative for current purposes.(2) This Answer is based on one possible interpretation of your Question, which I found to be somewhat vague. If you have something else in mind, please edit your question to be more specific.