Standard Deviation Calculation – How to Calculate Standard Deviation for 1/x (Changed Unit)

meanstandard deviation

I have a report of a machine in which it is documented how many parts it has produced each day in the last year. From this I could calculate the mean with its standard deviation in [parts/day].
However, I need the mean and the standard deviation in [days/part], so mathematically "1/x".

Normally, I would first convert all daily values into the right unit, so [days/part] and then simply calculate the mean value and standard deviation.

However, this is not possible for various reasons in the further procedure of my work and so I first have to calculate the mean value and the standard deviation in [parts/day] and then convert them into the needed unit [days/part].

And here is my problem, I can convert the mean with "1/x", but that's not possible with the standard deviation.

My question now would be if there is a mathematically correct way to calculate the standard deviation in this case.

In the literature I unfortunately don't find any information about my topic/problem.

From my point of view, the only thing I can do is either estimate the standard deviation or maybe use the coefficient of variation of [parts/day]. Is that correct?

I hope, I'm not in the wrong place with my problem and that it is understandable. Any tips are welcome.

Best Answer

As the examples on https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/248472/expectation-on-1-x show, you cannot compute the mean of $1/x$ as $1/\mbox{mean}(x)$. Actually it is not possible to compute the mean of $1/x$ from merely konwing the mean and standard deviation (sd) of $x$. A mathematician would stop at this point ;-) As it is a real problem that needs a real solution, an engineer would nevertheless look for a workaround.

Although mean and sd cannot be converted to reciprocal values without knowing the entire distribution of $x$, the situation is different for the median $M$ and the interquartile range $IQR=x_{.75}-x_{.25}$. It is

$$ M\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \frac{1}{M(x)} \quad\mbox{ and }\quad IQR\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \frac{1}{x_{.25}} - \frac{1}{x_{.75}} = \frac{IQR(x)}{x_{.25}\cdot x_{.75}} $$

Apparently, your simulation software makes the assumption that the parameter can be merely described by mean and sd, and therefore most likely makes the assumption that it is normally distributed. For a normal distribution, mean and median are equal and $IQR \approx 1.34896 \sigma$, and you can approximate the standard deviation from the interquartile range, and use $1/M(x)$ as the mean.

This is only a very crude approximation and the distribution of $1/x$ is unlikely to actually be normal (or even symmetric), but I would expect it to become increasingly better when the coefficient of variation ($\sigma/\mu$) of $x$ is smaller.

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