Comparing Factorials vs 2^n

exponential functionfactorial

I have the following question: In general, is $N!$ bigger than $2^N$?

Using the R programming language, I made a plot of these $N!$ vs $2^N$:

library(ggplot2)
library(cowplot)

 original_number = c(0:50)
 factorials = factorial(original_number)
 two_to_the_power = 2 ^  original_number
 table = data.frame( original_number,factorials, two_to_the_power)

head(table)

  original_number factorials two_to_the_power
1               1          1                2
2               2          2                4
3               3          6                8
4               4         24               16
5               5        120               32
6               6        720               64

g1 = ggplot(table, aes( original_number )) + 
  geom_line(aes(y =  two_to_the_power, colour = " two_to_the_power")) + 
  geom_line(aes(y =  factorials, colour = "factorials")) + ggtitle("Which is Bigger: Factorials or 2^n?")

g2 = ggplot(table, aes( original_number )) + 
  geom_line(aes(y =  log(two_to_the_power), colour = " two_to_the_power")) + 
  geom_line(aes(y =  log(factorials), colour = "factorials")) + ggtitle("Which is Bigger: Factorials or 2^n? (Log Scale)")


plot_grid(g1, g2)

enter image description here

Based on this plot, it seems that $N!$ is initially smaller, bu soon $N!$ becomes far bigger than $2^N$.

My Question: Suppose I did not have a calculator or a computer to plot these graphs – are there any "tricks" in math that could have been used to see which of these is bigger?

Best Answer

Based on this plot, it seems that N! is initially bigger, but 2^N soon grows way bigger than N!.

Then your plot is wrong, or better yet, you just misread it or you mistyped what you wanted to say.


In general, you have

$$N! = 1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot 4\cdots\cdot N > 1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot 3\cdot 3\cdots 3 = 2\cdot 3^{N-2}$$

so $2^N$ will be smaller. Indeed, the same line of reasoning can be used to prove that $N!$ is bigger than $a^N$ for any $a\in\mathbb R$.

More precisely, the idea of the proof above shows the statement:

For any $b\in\mathbb R$, there exists some $c\in\mathbb R$ such that, for large enough values of $N$, we have $N! > c\cdot b^N$.

This also means that, for any $a\in\mathbb R^n$, we have

$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a^n}{n!} = 0$$ because, for large values of $n$, we have (if we take $b=a+1$):

$$\frac{a^n}{n!} < \frac{a^n}{c\cdot (a+1)^n} = \frac1c\cdot \left(\frac{a}{a+1}\right)^n,$$

and $$\lim_{n\to\infty} \left(\frac{a}{a+1}\right)^n = 0.$$

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